Browse all practice questions for the Damage Control (DC) Repair Party Leader Practice Test. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

Damage Control (DC) Repair Party Leader Practice Test course image
All questions

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

  • What is the most efficient way to set up ventilation for a space 60 ft away?
  • Which of the following is a type of decontamination?
  • How much time from Halon discharge should the fire team wait before attempting re-entry?
  • During an air or surface nuclear attack, what is the first thing all topside personnel should do?
  • Which device is used for gamma radiation testing on ships?
  • Kit to repair holes is called what?
  • Which valve provides remote securing of the magazine sprinkler system valve from other stations?
  • Which option shows the correct maximum ducting for a single fan?
  • During a fire operation, which action best describes desmoking in the buffer zone?
  • Which device attaches to the SCBA face piece and projects voice?
  • Type II air lock is used for entry into engine rooms (TP->LP). Which option describes Type II?
  • The ordnance casualty control team falls under which DC designation?
  • Which item in the Desmoking Equipment Kit is used to cover irregular-shaped openings for controlling the spread of smoke and gases during a fire?
  • Which of the following is NOT a Height of Burst category?
  • The four nuclear explosion categories are defined by which parameter?
  • Which item is included in Class A fires, as described in the four main classes?
  • In the symbol legend, the symbol E represents which category?
  • Which kit is used to ventilate spaces and remove smoke and gases?
  • When rescuing personnel from an IDLH space, who is responsible for erecting hoisting equipment to remove victims?
  • The acoustic reverberation from underwater explosions that transmits sound energy is called what?
  • What does the Repair Party Manual (RPM) stand for?
  • What document is the basic checklist for the repair party when combatting a fire in the main space?
  • Which symbol denotes smoke?
  • Which of the following statements about DC organization conditions is true?
  • If there is a hole with jagged edges protruding inward, what type of patch should be used?
  • Which symbol denotes chemical?
  • What is the primary concept behind the Damage Control (DC) organization?
  • Height of Burst category that occurs at or near the surface?
  • When should DC kits be inventoried?
  • Which option correctly lists the two types of wood shoring?
  • What events do the three rapid plotting symbols represent?
  • What is the minimum waiting time after Halon discharge before re-entry?
  • What is known as the ship's backbone?
  • Which device is specifically used for gamma radiation testing on ships?
  • If there is damage to a ship, will there most likely be an electrical casualty?
  • What should you test for after using AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)?
  • The PECU is comprised of which components?
  • Which action is primarily a medical management step in the aftermath of exposure?
  • Which device is used to record and authorize the isolation of damaged spaces and systems?
  • Who is responsible for ensuring personnel have a route to deep shelter in MOPP-3?
  • What is used for the isolation of affected compartments and systems?
  • What is the symbol used to denote biological hazards?
  • Underway shipboard conditions are set at the discretion of the ___?
  • Which material condition may be applied to expedite boundary formation during rapid-fire growth?
  • What extinguisher is the most effective for a Class B fire in a Main Space?
  • If electrical power is necessary to effect mechanical isolation, what takes priority?
  • Which action is listed as part of the post-attack sequence to re-establish operations and safety?
  • Which of the following is NOT a blister agent?
  • Which term describes the key activity to reduce risk before a nuclear threat materializes?
  • Which of the following is NOT among the four main readings of the PHD6 Gas Detector?
  • What are the two CPS zones?
  • What is designed to provide filtered air to protect personnel against CBR contamination?
  • The propulsion repair party corresponds to which DCRS number?
  • The propulsion repair team is associated with which DC designation?
  • What symbol is used to plot a flooding boundary on a message blank?
  • Who delineates responsibilities for repair parties?
  • What are the two categories of air packs contained in SAR/SCBA?
  • Which two patches cover the scenarios of a straight pinhole leak and a hole with jagged edges inward?
  • SCBA contains __-foot lengths of hose?
  • PEARS requires no __?
  • Who authorized the energizing of casualty power circuits?
  • Type III air lock is used for p-ways (TP->TP).
  • Which action involves moving people away from danger during a nuclear/radiological incident?
  • What is the most important element in CBR protection?
  • Which of the following represents a correct order of the three sections of DC checklists?
  • Telescopic bars are used to place which desmoking equipment?
  • How many SCBA configurations are there?
  • Prior to entering a Total Protection (TP) zone, the crew member must first go through __ for decontamination.
  • What should an emergency team take to power electrical equipment?
  • What patch should be used for a hole with jagged edges protruding inward?
  • Who is responsible for choosing not to electrically isolate a damage area?
  • Nerve agents are classified into G-series (gases) and V-series (viscous liquids). Which statement is true?
  • What must be performed after all fires are extinguished, regardless of size of the fire?
  • When coordinating desmoking, what is the best location for exhaust fans?
  • How many 115V duplex outlets are on the portable DC generator?
  • Which of the following is the best extinguisher choice for a Class B fire in a Main Space?
  • Which statement best describes the progression of MOPP levels from 0 to 4?
  • Which of the following is NOT a main desmoking fan type?
  • Which air lock type is used for entry into the ship?
  • An air duct hose is used with which desmoking equipment?
  • The nerve center and headquarters for the DC repair system is called what?
  • Which device is used to remove smoke and gases during ventilation?
  • Which setup is considered the most efficient for ventilating a space about 60 feet away?
  • Which fire party member should always have a voice amplifier?
  • In the no casualty status of the damage control checklist, what action is associated?
  • What is the most effective agent used to extinguish a Class C fire?
  • Which of the following is a gas measured by the PHD6 Gas Detector?
  • Which organization issues the order to energize casualty power?
  • After a nuclear or radiological attack, which action is listed as an immediate concern for people?
  • One type of stability is critical. What is the other type?
  • What should be done before plugging a crack in a bulkhead to prevent it from spreading?
  • Following a Fire Marshall inspection of a main machinery space, the findings are reported to the ___.
  • Who is responsible for maintaining the CBR-D Bill?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the rapid plotting techniques?
  • Which device is worn by personnel to track their cumulative radiation exposure over time?
  • Which system is part of nuclear defense planning and execution considerations?
  • If the ship is sluggish with a slow, erratic roll, how is its stability defined?
  • Which system is designed to maintain visibility on the DC deck and main deck passageway during firefighting?
  • Which role directs rescue operations in conjunction with the GFE?
  • Which MOPP level corresponds to a “suspected threat”?
  • In nuclear defense planning, which concept focuses on managing risk during operations?
  • Which of the following is NOT a blood agent?
  • PHD6 Gas Detector readings include Oxygen, Carbon Monoxide, Hydrogen Sulfide, and what else?
  • What is the main goal in setting a fire boundary?
  • Which MOPP level is associated with an “imminent threat”?
  • Condition III of the DC organization is characterized by which state?
  • Which of the following is a correct hazard symbol abbreviation for nuclear/radiological hazard?
  • For flooding, what type of isolation is set, and for fire, what type?
  • Which patch is used for a jagged hole?
  • In the event of a major Class B fire, what step should occur before personnel re-enter the space related to foam use?
  • How many standard training kits support shipboard DC, firefighting, and CBR-D training?
  • In hazard signage, the symbol BIO specifically denotes which hazard?
  • Are damaged ships most likely to suffer an electrical casualty?
  • Following a Fire Marshall inspection of a main machinery space, the findings are reported to the commanding officer. Which option best names this person?
  • Which type of flooding occurs when damaged spaces flood due to holes through interior bulkheads and piping, compromising watertight integrity?
  • Kit that contains tools, plugs, and wedges to repair piping systems is called what?
  • Which action requires moving people to a safer location during a radiological incident?
  • Who gives the order to energize casualty power?
  • Which boundary characteristic is essential to prevent hazardous vapors from spreading during fighting a fire?
  • All gas-free equipment must comply with __ regulations.
  • How many techniques are available during a direct fire attack?
  • Which item is NOT one of the four main classes of fire?
  • Which of the following are nuclear defense planning and execution considerations?
  • The boundaries of the Damage Control Area of Responsibility conform to which zones?
  • Which symbol denotes personnel?
  • Condition II of the DC organization is characterized by which state?
  • Which device is used to visualize heat signatures during firefighting?
  • While combatting a fire, what means of communication should the on scene leader use to acquire info from the attack team leader?
  • Any fire can create untenable conditions within a space in as little as __ minutes.
  • Which symbol denotes electrical damage?
  • The RAM fan is powered by which medium?
  • Which boundaries need to be checked to ensure they remain tight during a fire?
  • Condition I of the DC organization is characterized by which state?
  • Which option correctly describes the three DC checklist sections in the order they are used?
  • What is the upper bound of the safe oxygen level range?
  • Which desmoking kit item covers irregular openings to limit smoke spread during desmoking operations?
  • What is the first priority when mechanically isolating a machinery space?
  • Which statement best describes the purpose of space ventilation?
  • What device attached to the SCBA face piece projects voice?
  • IDLH stands for Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health.
  • What equipment must the desmoking team be equipped with prior to desmoking a space?
  • What does the acronym LSS stand for in safety equipment?
  • When rescuing personnel from an IDLH space, rescue operations are directed by the GFE or the __.
  • Which symbol denotes structural damage?
  • Removing smoke and heat from the smoke control zone (buffer zone) between the inner and outer smoke boundaries is known as what?
  • Who gives the actual order to energize casualty power?
  • What does the SAR/SCBA system consist of?
  • Which item refers to the medical care and prioritization of patients after exposure?
  • What type of airlock connects pressurized and non-pressurized areas within the ship?
  • Air supply packs contained in SAR/SCBA are __?
  • When rescuing personnel from an IDLH space, who enters the space equipped with respiratory equipment, harnesses, and safety lines?
  • What is the first action after assuming secondary central?
  • The Portable Exothermic Cutting Unit (PECU) is comprised of which items?
  • Electrical isolation of a space shall include securing of all electrical equipment except which?
  • Height of Burst category associated with the highest altitude exposure?
  • Exhausting gases through ducting can create a ____ electric charge.
  • Which air lock type is NOT listed among the three described?
  • If there is a pinhole leak in the straight section of a fire main, which patch should be used?
  • With manual plotting, all damage is plotted on which item?
  • Which main class is associated with metals?
  • Which action is associated with the longer-term process of returning to normal operations after an attack?
  • Who can modify maximum exposure limits for personnel?
  • Mod 3 NFTI: hotter objects appear __?
  • What are the principal means of Damage Control communications?
  • Which symbol indicates a radiological hazard?
  • The person who should always have a voice amplifier during operations is the?
  • What are the two types of decontamination?
  • Which of the following is a primary method of deploying CWAs?
  • Which document provides the basic repair party checklist for main space fires?
  • Which action is primarily associated with safeguarding after fires are out, focusing on the atmosphere?
  • Which sequence correctly represents the events indicated by the three rapid plotting symbols?
  • Which of the following is a valid power source for the RAM fan?
  • Thermal energy is a form of which type of radiation?
  • Who can authorize opening and entry into IDLH spaces?
  • Which statement correctly orders the two standard metal shoring models from shortest to longest?
  • Which is the primary agent for combatting a Class A fire?
  • Which agent is typically used to extinguish Class C fires on ships?
  • SCBA configuration 6-cylinder band is replaced with __, and the wireframe is changed to __.
  • PEARS is powered by __?
  • What is the key operational consideration to minimize the effects of a nuclear hazard?
  • In a radiological attack, what system should be used to prevent or control the topside radiation hazards from fallout?
  • DCA is responsible for which casualty power action(s)?
  • What color are the images displayed in NFTI Mod 1 and Mod 2?
  • How many personnel are required to be assigned to a primary fire boundary when operating a 1-3/4 in fire hose?
  • Which action is explicitly listed as a post-attack measure to regain access or use of an area?
  • What is an unpressurized zone that provides filtered air protecting against liquid and solid chemical and biological agents?
  • Which component is commonly described as the ship's backbone?
  • In NFTI Mod 1 or 2, colder objects appear __, hotter objects appear __.
  • What patch should be used for a pinhole leak in a straight section of a fire main?
  • When the ship is entering a radiological zone, where can the DCA be found?
  • Which symbol denotes electrical?
  • One type of wood shoring is I-type. What is the other type?
  • Which piece of equipment is designed for multi-function rescue tasks including cutting and spreading?
  • What are examples of hazardous atmospheres aboard ship?
  • Following inspection of damage to a power cable, the DCC will notify __ to repair casualty?
  • Which color indicates hot objects on NFTI Mod 3?
  • A pyrodistigmine pretreatment regimen is initiated for all personnel at which MOPP level?
  • What does DCC stand for?
  • Which symbol denotes toxic gas?
  • A dosimeter is used to measure what aspect of radiation exposure for an individual?
  • What can serve as a fire boundary?
  • How long must AFFF bilge sprinklers be actuated prior to re-entry after a major Class B fire has been extinguished?
  • Safe oxygen levels for personnel fall within which percentage range?
  • Which action is used to physically separate contaminated individuals or zones to prevent spread?
  • Which area does the Gross-Decon Area (GDA) relate to in the decontamination process?
  • When providing GFE services, __ is considered IDLH.
  • What type of patch uses marline?
  • Who is responsible for keeping records of crew member radiological exposure?
  • Ship-specific policies are inserted into which document?
  • DCRS 5 is comprised of what personnel?
  • What is the purpose for space ventilation?
  • The buffer zone between the inner and outer smoke boundaries is called what?
  • Which device measures the total dose or exposure of radiation accumulated by the wearer?
  • What does CO stand for in shipboard operations?
  • Which exposure hazard is associated with radiation sources outside the body during a radiological situation?
  • The Portable Electric All Purpose Rescue Set (PEARS) is used for which five tasks?
  • Which action listed after an attack involves removing or restricting access to contaminated areas to protect people?
  • What are the two models of metal shoring?
  • In a radiological zone, the DCA location is identified in which area?
  • During desmoking operations, exhaust fans should be placed on which deck?
  • Does extent of damage determine how long it takes to repair the damage?
  • Which option correctly lists the two types of stability?
  • Which bulkheads serve as boundaries in DC construction?
  • Which deck should exhaust fans be located on to facilitate proper duct pressure?
  • When a fire is growing rapidly, what material condition may the ship set to expedite boundaries?
  • Which system provides primary non-electrical communications between crew members during damage control?
  • What is the maximum amount of ducting that can be used to ventilate a space with 1 fan?
  • What is the symbol used to denote radiological hazards?
  • Whose decision is it to man fire boundaries with charged hoses?
  • Which symbol denotes a hole?
  • Which action is part of the post-attack recovery phase focused on restoring normal operations over time?
  • What valve permits the sprinkler valve for the magazine sprinkler system to be secured from other stations?
  • Who is responsible for the ship's watertight integrity?
  • Which statement best describes the DC organization concept in practice?
  • Exhaust fans or blowers should be located on the weather deck when possible so the exhaust ducts within the ship are under __ pressure.
  • What is the first action to do in MOPP-4?
  • Does the extent of damage determine the time for the damage to be repaired?
  • Which main class is associated with electrical hazards?
  • What does TP stand for in the context of protective zones?
  • Which term describes the process of separating contaminated from clean areas to prevent spread?
  • Which role is responsible for ensuring the casualty power system is ready to energize?
  • To assess the extent of a nuclear radiation hazard, DC personnel rely on electronic or chemical means of assessment.
  • Residual radiation is an external exposure hazard?
  • What does the acronym AOR stand for in the context of damage control?
  • Which main fire class is associated with liquids?
  • What type of chemical agent causes severe skin irritation and redness?
  • Which patch is used for a pinhole leak in a straight fire main?
  • Who requests additional repair party manning during a Class B fire in a machinery space?
  • What are the 5 levels of MOPP?
  • The nerve center of DC operations on a ship is known as the?
  • What is an action cutout switch used for?
  • The ordnance casualty control team corresponds to which DCRS number?
  • Nuclear weapon explosions are classified in four categories by which parameter?
  • Which symbol indicates a biological hazard?
  • Is Order of Succession in the RPM by default?
Subscribe

Get the latest from Examzify

You can unsubscribe at any time. Read our privacy policy